3.5 Sequence
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\(a_n = (-1)^n\), does the limit exist?
Assume \(a_n \to L \in \mathbb{R}\). This means that \(\forall \epsilon > 0\), there exists some \(N \in \mathbb{N}\) such that \(|(-1)^n - L| < \epsilon \ \forall n \geq N\)
Take \(\epsilon = 1\), there exists some \(N \in \mathbb{N}\) such that \(|(-1)^n - L| < 1 \ \forall n \geq N\)
Consider \(2N > N\), then \(|(-1)^{2N} - L| < 1\) which is the same as \(|1 - L| < 1\), so \(L > 0\).
Consider \(2N+1 > N\), then \(|(-1)^{2N+1} - L| < 1\)which is the same as \(|-1 - L| < 1\), so \(L \leq 0\).
Contradiction!!
So \(a_n = (-1)^n\) is not convergent.
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Show that the sequence \(f_n(x) = \frac{x}{nx+1}\) converges uniformly to the zero function on the interval \((0,1)\)
Let \(\epsilon > 0\), we have that \(|f_n - 0| < \epsilon \iff \frac{x}{nx+1} < \epsilon\), then \(\frac{1}{\epsilon}-\frac{1}{x}<n\)
Since \(\frac{1}{x} > 1\), we have that \(\frac{1}{\varepsilon}-\frac{1}{x}<n\)
So if we consider \(N > \frac{1}{\epsilon} - 1\), \(N\) does not depend on \(x\), so we get that \(\frac{x}{nx+1} < \epsilon \ \forall x \in (0,1), \forall n \geq N\)
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Consider the sequence of functions \(f_n(x) = e^{-n^2 x^2}\) on the interval \((0, +\infty)\). Prove that the sequence converges pointwise and not uniformly.
\(n^2 x^2 \to \infty \text{ as } n \to \infty\), so \(f_n(x) = e^{-n^2 x^2} \to 0\). Pointwise convergence to \(0\).
Now, check if the convergence is uniform.
\(|e^{-n^2 x^2} |<\varepsilon\iff n>\frac{\sqrt{-\log(\varepsilon)}}{x}\), but the right term goes to infinity
Thus we cannot find such \(N\)